i - is an imaginary number which doesn't existOriginally Posted by David Franklin
I have no idea how to quote the thing on the Forum so this will have to do
Take care,
Christopher
In what way does the Kronecker delta rely on a number that doesn't exist?Originally Posted by Ghost
i - is an imaginary number which doesn't existOriginally Posted by David Franklin
I have no idea how to quote the thing on the Forum so this will have to do
Take care,
Christopher
But the "i" in the definition of the Kronecker delta has nothing to do with sqrt(-1).Originally Posted by Ghost
This is getting kinda existential with all these infinities
What's the sound of one hand clapping?
Be Well,
Christopher
Anyway infinity is really more a belief than a number
*ducks*
I just love this forum, were else in the world will you find, the Kronecker delta and superman’s underpants on the same thread
Originally Posted by philsmove
Plus if anyone asks what you did over the weekend.............
Be Well,
Christopher
{Baruch, sitting peacefully at Ghost's feet, wordlessly thrusts one hand forward.}Originally Posted by Ghost
Well if an actor in pointy ears says so...Originally Posted by GhostYa don't say!Originally Posted by GhostMisconception: just because it's labelled 'imaginary' - doesn't mean it doesn't exist. It's as real as the number -1, or 3. (But still not relevant to the Kronecker delta...)Originally Posted by Ghost
I never liked resorting to the infinite.So a Dirac delta function is zero everywhere except at the origin, where it's infinite, and the integral across everywhere is 1?Originally Posted by El Salsero Gringo
If you take two Dirac deltas & add them together, you presumably get a new function that's zero everywhere except the origin, where it's infinite, and the integral across everywhere is 2.
But the infinity at the origin of the double function is presumably twice as big an infinity than the regular infinity of just one on its own? But how can you get bigger than the first infinity?But in the real world, not even Richard Branson would claim his trains apply infinite forces to anything (although I can see he might claim that some events are of zero duration ).Originally Posted by El Salsero Gringo
An alternative thought experiment is this: consider replacing the train windscreen with a springy material (eg. from a trampoline).*
The wasp hits the trampoline and the deflection is much more noticeable. The part of the trampoline hit by the wasp is going at a different speed to the rest of the train, until it springs back to its original position. I'll assume the wasp is still squidged** onto the trampoline rather than bouncing off.
In the real train there's still a deflection when it hits the windscreen ('cos of the equal and opposite forces), but it's much less noticeable.
I think the essential maths stay the same as the original problem. You don't need infinities to visualise it, but I don't think it changes anything about conservation of momentum.
* Note to readers: do not try this at home - driving a train at 140mph with a trampoline instead of a windscreen is dangerous and should only be attempted by trained professionals.
** It's a thought experiment wasp - no wasps were harmed in the making of this post.
Love dance, will travel
Originally Posted by doc martin
So, if either foot could be correct... then why isn't it post-modern jive ?
But that is easy... first year math (25.101 at Auckland uni - I can't believe I remember that number)...Originally Posted by DavidY
Consider:
y = 2z
as z tends to infinity, y tends to 2x infinity... in which case we can say that
as z tends to infinity:
z - y = infinity
y - z = negative infinity
Besides, what's with the concept of infinity being big? Surely it just refers to an inability to measure...
If two trains are travelling towards each other and every second the distance between them halves, what is the distance between them as time tends towards infinity?
Originally Posted by DavidY
Loosely speaking, yes. But that's certainly not the definition. You can either consider a limit of functions (e.g. lim_{n->oo} abs(x)^((1-n)/n)/n), or take a functional approach where essentially you say "I know what it does but I won't try to define it at zero". Neither approach has you adding infinities.Originally Posted by DavidY
If you want to avoid the whole infinities thing with the wasp, imagine it has a spring shock absorber on the front. Then the forces are always finite (providing it's a good enough spring, at any rate), and the change in the train speed will be negligable.
In less than a day you've answeredOriginally Posted by Baruch
does the lady you step back on the left foot or the right for the first move?
are we talking about the first step back, or the second step back ;-)
what's the meaning of life?
And now What's the sound of one hand clapping?
Christopher
Is this a question
Ok before I even start - in no way am I taking any of this seriously
I refer you to my quote about being a penguin and MsFab's eloquent responseOriginally Posted by El Salsero Gringo
There are real numbers and imaginary numbers. It's the same reasoning that 1 isn't a prime number because a prime can only be divided by 1 and itself.Originally Posted by El Salsero Gringo
It is strange though, that given that i means imaginary number, and that there are a lot of other letters, both western and greek to chose from, that it's usedOriginally Posted by El Salsero Gringo
At this point I suspect the arguement now comes down simply to belief if you're not a mathematician. I'd be surprised if non-mathematicians are following the arguements put forward - I mean look at the Kronecker delta!
I have to admit I am finding the arguements funny though - shock absorbers on a wasp
WayaayBird - please - more questions
Take care,
Christopher
Yup - unfortunately it's bad typing - you left off the ?Originally Posted by Baruch
Take care
Christopher
'Twas deliberateOriginally Posted by Ghost
OK then - what is the mass of 1 cubic centimetre of material from the centre of a black hole?
Was itOriginally Posted by Baruch
Argggggggggggh. You'll have the scientists at it againOriginally Posted by Baruch
Depends how much stuff is in there.
Be Well,
Christopher
I think - at the centre of the 1 cubic centimetre of the black hole will be a singularity, a singularity has a finite mass but an infinitely small volume and infinitely large density. so its density is undefined.Originally Posted by Baruch
edit so I think its mass maybe its easier to try to understand women
Last edited by philsmove; 1st-May-2006 at 12:38 PM.
What's real about real numbers? Could you point out a one for me?Originally Posted by Ghost
Except sometimes they use j for the square root of -1.Originally Posted by Ghost
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